Pediatric Radiology > Post-Test


Post-Test

Question 1: The "double bubble" sign signifies a dilated stomach and duodenal bulb and is seen with duodenal atresia.
True
False

Question 2: All of the following are true regarding meconium ileus EXCEPT:
"Soap bubble" appearance of bowel, usually in the right lower quadrant
 Small bowel obstruction
The presenting symptom in 85% of cystic fibrosis patients
Volvulus and ileal stenosis are complications, although rare

Question 3: Problem: inability to pass NG tube. What is the diagnosis?
Esophageal atresia with a tracheoesophageal fistula
Esophageal atresia without a tracheoesophageal fistula
Tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia
 None of the above

Question 4: In Hirschsprung disease the most common transition site is the rectosigmoid colon.
True
False

Question 5: Appendicitis can present with which of the following?
Small bowel obstruction
Appendicolith
 Right lower quadrant pain, McBurney's sign
 All of the above

Question 6: What is the diagnosis?
Necrotizing enterocolitis
Meconium Ileus
 Duodenal atresia
 None of the above.

Question 7: In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
Pyloric length > 14mm
Pyloric muscle wall thickness > 3 - 4mm
 Exaggerated peristaltic waves
 Bilious vomiting

Question 8: Treatment of intussusception includes air or fluid enema under fluoroscopic guidance, or surgery if these methods fail.
True
False

Question 9: Where is the coin lodged?
Trachea
 Esophagus
Carina
 None of the above

Question 10: Malrotation with midgut volvulus is a surgical emergency because it may lead to bowel necrosis.
True
False

Question 11: The umbilical venous catheter tip should be within 1 cm of the diaphragm, in the IVC.
True
False

Question 12: If there is a question of pneumoperitoneum on a supine x-ray, the following x-ray's can be obtained for confirmation:
Prone or cross table lateral
 Left side down decubitus or cross table lateral
Left side down decubitus or prone
 None of the above

Question 13: What is the diagnosis?
Pneumoperitoneum
 Pneumothorax
Pneumonia
 None of the above

Question 14: Transient tachypnea of the newborn is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Presents 4 - 6 hours after birth with respiratory distress
 Typically affects premature infants
Due to delayed clearance of fetal pulmonary fluid
 Usually clears by 48 - 72 hours

Question 15: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.
True
False

Question 16: What is the image depicting?
Right upper lobe collapse
Right upper lobe mass
 Normal thymus
None of the above

Question 17: Primary tuberculosis can present with all of the following EXCEPT:
Hilar adenopathy
Pleural effusion
 Diffuse, small uniform nodules
Focal consolidation

Question 18: Thickening of the epiglottis in acute epiglottis, as seen on the lateral view, is called the thumb sign.
True
False

Question 19: What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
 Pneumothorax
Cystic fibrosis
None of the above
Question 20: The deep sulcus sign is diagnostic of a pneumothorx.
True
False

Question 21: The early filling film in a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) allows visualization of a ureterocele, if present.
True
False

Question 22: You identify vesicoureteral reflux while performing a VCUG on a 2 year-old boy. The patient's siblings do not need to be screened for vesicoureteral reflux
True
 False

Question 23: What grade of reflux is being depicted?
Grade 1
 Grade 2
Grade 3
 Grade 4
 Grade 5

Question 24: All of the following are true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT:
Renal enlargement
 Echogenic kidneys on ultrasound due to numerous cysts throughout the cortex and medulla
Associated with hepatic fibrosis
 Associated with intracranial aneurysms

Question 25: Hydronephrosis is the most common cause of an abdominal mass in the neonate.
True
False

Question 26: What is the diagnosis?
Hydronephrosis
Multicystic dysplastic kidney
 Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
 None of the Above

Question 27: Mesoblastic nephroma can be reliably differentiated from a Wilms tumor on imaging.
True
False

Question 28: Most neuroblastomas arise from the adrenal gland and present with a palpable abdominal mass.
True
False

Question 29: What is the diagnosis?
Wilms tumor
 Neuroblastoma
Mesoblastic nephroma
 None of the above
Question 30: Wilms tumor can invade the renal vein / IVC and displace vessels whereas neuroblastoma encases vessels.
True
False

Question 31: All Salter-Harris fractures involve the growth plate.
True
False

Question 32: Radiographic findings suggestive of non-accidental trauma include:
Metaphyseal corner fractures
 Posterior rib fractures near the costovertebral junction
Multiple fractures at different stages of healing
 All of the above

Question 33: What is the diagnosis?
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
 Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
Bone cyst
 Hip dislocation

Question 34: All of the following are true regarding Developmental Dysplasia of the hip EXCEPT:
More prevalent in males than females
Clinical findings include shortened leg, asymmetric gluteal folds, and hip clicks
Alpha angle < 60 degrees
 Ultrasound is preferred if the patient is < 6 months old

Question 35: A child presents with a fever and a painful hip. It is important to exclude septic arthritis because of the unfavorable sequelae if undiagnosed and untreated.
True
False

Question 36: What is the diagnosis?
Patellar tendon rupture
Osteochondroma of the tibial tuberosity
 Osgood-Schlatter disease
None of the above

Question 37: Classic radiographic findings of Langerhans cell histiocytosis include:
Punched out lytic skull lesions
Vertebra plana
 Floating teeth appearance in the mandible
 All of the above

Question 38: Achondrolasia results in a pelvis with tall flared iliac wings and increased acetabular angles whereas mucopolysaccharidoses result in rounded iliac wings with decreased acetabular angles.
True
 False

Question 39: What is the diagnosis?
Lead poisoning
Normal variant
Leukemia
 None of the Above
Question 40: Radiographic findings of Osteogenesis Imperfecta include all of the following EXCEPT:
Multiple fractures at different stages of healing
 Wormian bones within the skull
Metaphyseal corner fractures
Osteopenia

Question 41: Grade IV germinal matrix hemorrhage is parenchymal hemorrhage from direct extension of a germinal matrix hemorrhage.
True
 False

Question 42: Associated findings of Chiari I malformation include hydrocephalus and hydrosyringomyelia (syrinx).
True
False

Question 43: What is the diagnosis on this sagittal head ultrasound?
Germinal matrix hemorrhage
 Periventricular leukomalacia
Normal
 None of the Above

Question 44: All of the following are true regarding a vein of Galen malformation EXCEPT:
Arteriovenous fistula between one or more cerebral arteries and the vein of Galen
 Typical presentation is high output congestive heart failure
Imaging shows a mass in the region of the posterior 3rd ventricle
 Treatment is surgical removal

Question 45: An arachnoid cyst in the posterior fossa will exert mass effect on the underlying cerebellum.
True
False

Question 46: What is the diagnosis?
Sturge-Weber syndrome
Meningitis
 Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
 None of the above

Question 47: All of the following can be present in Tuberous sclerosis, EXCEPT:
Subependymal and cortical tubers
Bilateral acoustic schwannomas
Giant cell astrocytoma
 Classic triad of mental retardation, seizures, and adenoma sebaceum

Question 48: Herpes encephalitis typically affects the temporal lobes in neonates who get the infection during birth.
True
 False

Question 49: What is the diagnosis?
Neurofibromatosis 1
 Neurofibromatosis 2
Neurofibromatosis 3
 None of the Above

Question 50: Ependymomas typically arise from the floor of the 4th ventricle whereas medulloblastomas arise from the roof of the 4th ventricle.
True
False


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